A Response to the Claim That Prophet Muhammad Wrote Verses in Order to Make Polygamous Marriages

Prophet Muhammad, until the age of 40 when he received the messengership, was a respected person known in the society he lived in as ”emin”, that is, trustworthy. When he was 25 years old he married the 40-year-old Khadija, and they remained married for about 25 years until Khadija’s death. Khadija was a rich businesswoman. If Prophet Muhammad’s aim were wealth and women, after the wealth he acquired by marrying Khadija he would have divorced and married young ladies. Polygamy was in fact already legitimate in that period. When his wife died, he himself had left his youth behind and was a 50-year-old man.

According to the polytheist system, the right of a man to take unlimited wives already existed. That is, there was no need for Prophet Muhammad to make any extra effort in order to be polygamous. Then what is the logic of limiting his marriages with the verse ”After this, (other) women are not lawful for you, nor to exchange these for other wives -even if their beauty pleases you-…” (Surah Al-Ahzab, 52)? When he already had the right to take unlimited wives, why would he write a verse that would limit himself?

It is written in the Torah that the daughters of the prophet Lot, supposedly so that their lineage might continue, had intercourse with their own father while he was asleep. Would you look at the position the prophet Lot has been brought to?

If such fabrications of past peoples and the superstitions passed on as so-called hadiths are also taken into consideration, it is quite normal that Prophet Muhammad’s marriages, the clothing of his wives, the manner of their speaking with strange men … have been described openly and in detail so as to leave no room for false transmissions. Think what kind of superstitions the minds of atheists and deists, clouded today by fabricated hadiths, would have been polluted with if these clear verses did not exist…